julietrose
New member
For the last 9.5 years I have been in a relationship with my NP and have not had any partners (except my new partner of less than 1 month) that have made it past date one, nor made their way into a sexual relationship. (Only one even made it to a kiss.) Meanwhile, my NP has had 2 long-term GFs in that same time period. In the end, he became fluid-bonded with both, at some point. Discussions were had and there were zero issues with this occurring. So when it comes to safety I thought I understood what that meant.
Well, it's coming to my attention from my NP that I might not be as safe as he would like. But now I am questioning everything.
I feel like condom use should be occurring when PIV and PIA actually occur, along with the intention of cumming, but not so much when everything is external to the vulva/anus, with only the intention of arousal (aka grinding). My NP is of the mind that both should have condom usage.
I am just having problems with justifying this in my brain. I know that STIs can be transmitted in MANY ways, including just skin contact, so for some STIs, condoms do not mitigate any risk. So they are not really useful for those.
Can someone help me with trying to either mitigate risk better if I am wrong, help me to explain to my partner if he's wrong, or help me make sense of all this so that I am able to communicate better with my new partner?
Thank you.
ETA: as far as I am aware from conversations, both my new partner and I have clear panels, and I am going to be getting a new panel done next month as part of my regular testing.
Well, it's coming to my attention from my NP that I might not be as safe as he would like. But now I am questioning everything.
I feel like condom use should be occurring when PIV and PIA actually occur, along with the intention of cumming, but not so much when everything is external to the vulva/anus, with only the intention of arousal (aka grinding). My NP is of the mind that both should have condom usage.
I am just having problems with justifying this in my brain. I know that STIs can be transmitted in MANY ways, including just skin contact, so for some STIs, condoms do not mitigate any risk. So they are not really useful for those.
Can someone help me with trying to either mitigate risk better if I am wrong, help me to explain to my partner if he's wrong, or help me make sense of all this so that I am able to communicate better with my new partner?
Thank you.
ETA: as far as I am aware from conversations, both my new partner and I have clear panels, and I am going to be getting a new panel done next month as part of my regular testing.
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