aussiekate
New member
Disentangling "non-monogamy as inherent inclination" from "unmet needs"
I'm a 45 years old woman, currently having spent 24 years monogamous, and desperately wanting to experience sex with other men. My husband is not at all happy about this, and we recently (a few weeks ago) began seeing a poly-friendly counsellor.
The particular issue I'd like to discuss in this thread is that counselling has identified that I do have some unmet needs, as an individual (due to past illness), and due to some relationship issues.
My husband is now convinced that my desire for sex with other men is my way of trying to satisfy these unmet needs, and that if I'm just patient and spend time - which could be six months to a year - working on satisfying those needs by working on our relationship and myself, that my desire for sex with other men might go away.
I'm quite convinced - having been wanting and asking for this for about 6 years now - that I'm non-monogamous by inclination; that it's more like a sexual orientation than a chosen behaviour.
Whilst I'm confident that I have the self-discipline to choose to delay gratifying my needs for another six months or a year, it feels unfair, given that I've been begging my husband to go to counselling for years, and he refused until very recently. He says "isn't it a small price to pay for securing our marriage?"
But I'm unconvinced that it will change - I feel it will just mean that I spend another six months or a year having my needs unmet. And he freely acknowledges that he's been stubborn in refusing to go to counselling, and that he's neglected my needs for a long time and taken me for granted, and is profusely apologetic for doing so. If I were confident that it my needs were going to be met by waiting, then of course it would be a small price to pay for saving my marriage, and I'd happily pay it.
What say you?
Is it more likely that my desires are simply a chosen behaviour for satisfying unmet needs, or are they more like an orientation that I've uncovered as I shed social conditioning?
I'm a 45 years old woman, currently having spent 24 years monogamous, and desperately wanting to experience sex with other men. My husband is not at all happy about this, and we recently (a few weeks ago) began seeing a poly-friendly counsellor.
The particular issue I'd like to discuss in this thread is that counselling has identified that I do have some unmet needs, as an individual (due to past illness), and due to some relationship issues.
My husband is now convinced that my desire for sex with other men is my way of trying to satisfy these unmet needs, and that if I'm just patient and spend time - which could be six months to a year - working on satisfying those needs by working on our relationship and myself, that my desire for sex with other men might go away.
I'm quite convinced - having been wanting and asking for this for about 6 years now - that I'm non-monogamous by inclination; that it's more like a sexual orientation than a chosen behaviour.
Whilst I'm confident that I have the self-discipline to choose to delay gratifying my needs for another six months or a year, it feels unfair, given that I've been begging my husband to go to counselling for years, and he refused until very recently. He says "isn't it a small price to pay for securing our marriage?"
But I'm unconvinced that it will change - I feel it will just mean that I spend another six months or a year having my needs unmet. And he freely acknowledges that he's been stubborn in refusing to go to counselling, and that he's neglected my needs for a long time and taken me for granted, and is profusely apologetic for doing so. If I were confident that it my needs were going to be met by waiting, then of course it would be a small price to pay for saving my marriage, and I'd happily pay it.
What say you?
Is it more likely that my desires are simply a chosen behaviour for satisfying unmet needs, or are they more like an orientation that I've uncovered as I shed social conditioning?